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Originally Posted by MililaniBuckeye
I believe umpires are indeed allowed to make determinations whether or not (a) runner(s) would've scored...
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Thanks again for another clarification, JXC.
Just to double-check something, though. This scenario is different than what happened in the game. If the umpires would have ruled that the ball would have gone into the stands without the fan reaching into the field of play, does fan interference come into play? Or since the fan in that situation doesn't affect the ball going into the stands, is it the dead ball/two base award, with no discretion by the umpires about where the runners would have ended up?