GoodLifeSean
Proud to be born in the best state in the Union!
OK, this is a philosophical discussion on a term I've been seeing a lot again, reverse racism. This is probably due to the current unnamed major office race going on, but this is not about that. It's about the term, I remember hearing my profs at Miami rail against the term as well.
Webster's Dictionary provides this definition of racism1 : a belief that race is the primary determinant of human traits and capacities and that racial differences produce an inherent superiority of a particular race 2 : racial prejudice or discrimination
So those beliefs are as stated, hence the term, reverse racism would infer the reverse of the above definition. Hence nothing would be based on a race, a very idealistic and novel idea (which I definately approve of).
Anyway, my question is, isn't the idea of reverse racism inherently racist in itsself as that would imply that only the dominant (read majority) race can be racist.
Webster's Dictionary provides this definition of racism1 : a belief that race is the primary determinant of human traits and capacities and that racial differences produce an inherent superiority of a particular race 2 : racial prejudice or discrimination
So those beliefs are as stated, hence the term, reverse racism would infer the reverse of the above definition. Hence nothing would be based on a race, a very idealistic and novel idea (which I definately approve of).
Anyway, my question is, isn't the idea of reverse racism inherently racist in itsself as that would imply that only the dominant (read majority) race can be racist.