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Split Thread: End Times Discussion

buckeyegrad;641846; said:
That's a fair criticism; like I said, I admit that I may be wrong. However, I would respond by asking do we know how many Jews came to Christ before the destruction of the Temple in 70 AD?
Grad... After giving this more thought...
Even for the early date of the writing of Revelation it seems very unlikely that
144,000 Jews became Christians in between the time of Jesus' Revelation to John and the destruction of the Temple.
Once again everything after 4:1 was to come after he wrote it.

Now that's not to say that 144000 or more didn't come to Christ between his Death and the temlple. But the earliest common dates for the book of Revelation is about 68 AD giving only 2 years for 144000 Jews who the Bible said would be blinded to Christ to come to Christ...

As with anything with Christ anything is possible but 144000 Jews during a 2 year period just doesn't seem accurate. Though like you said I could be wrong.
 
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lvbuckeye;643582; said:


first, it is improtant to note that the word rapture does NOT occur in the Bible.
Neither does the word Bible appear in the Bible...
The greek word harpadzo(sp?) does and when translated into latin is the word we get rapture from.
Any argument that word rapture does not appear in the Bible is just wrong.
 
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buckeyegrad;642341; said:
Here's the problem, where in Scripture does it talk about "the time of the Gentiles"? That principle comes from dispensational theology, not the World of God.

Curious:

Luk 21:24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led captive into all the nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

Maybe your response to him should have been:
Mat 24:36 But of that day and hour no one knows, no, not the angels of Heaven, but only My Father.


I'm feeling it tonight so one more thing(not particularly at you Grad): Now before I go any further realize I'm just giving an evidence. Look at Jesus parable of the Fig Tree. We know that throughtout the OT the Fig tree was a symbol of Israel. In fact Jesus' parable looks a lot like Ezekial 37. We also know that Israel didn't exactly accept Jesus in the first century and we know they were rejecting Jesus during that time so to say Israel was sprouting leaves at that time is not quite right.
Only in 1948 did Israel become a nation again and only recently have the Jews been coming to a saving knowledge in Jesus Christ at a greater frequency than ever before.

Jesus said when you see the Fig tree sprout leaves you shall know the time is near. He said that right in the middle of all those prophecies including the abomination of desolation.

Israel was not sprouting when the Temple was destroyed.
 
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t_BuckeyeScott;644885; said:
Grad... After giving this more thought...
Even for the early date of the writing of Revelation it seems very unlikely that
144,000 Jews became Christians in between the time of Jesus' Revelation to John and the destruction of the Temple.
Once again everything after 4:1 was to come after he wrote it.

Now that's not to say that 144000 or more didn't come to Christ between his Death and the temlple. But the earliest common dates for the book of Revelation is about 68 AD giving only 2 years for 144000 Jews who the Bible said would be blinded to Christ to come to Christ...

As with anything with Christ anything is possible but 144000 Jews during a 2 year period just doesn't seem accurate. Though like you said I could be wrong.

I see the 144,000 referring to the time between Christ's death and resurrection and the destruction of the temple. This was a 40 year period, so there was plenty of time for that many Jews to become followers of Christ. After all, 3000 Jews were added to the brotherhood on Pentacost alone. I would back up this assertion that the 144,000 refer to the first century Messianic Jews in that they are called the "first fruits" in Revelation 14:4. If these are Jews that are to come to Christ during the End of Days, wouldn't they be the last fruits?
 
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buckeyegrad;645028; said:
I see the 144,000 referring to the time between Christ's death and resurrection and the destruction of the temple. This was a 40 year period, so there was plenty of time for that many Jews to become followers of Christ. After all, 3000 Jews were added to the brotherhood on Pentacost alone. I would back up this assertion that the 144,000 refer to the first century Messianic Jews in that they are called the "first fruits" in Revelation 14:4. If these are Jews that are to come to Christ during the End of Days, wouldn't they be the last fruits?

Maybe the 144,000 refers to Inquisition era "converts".
 
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Jagdaddy;645138; said:
Maybe the 144,000 refers to Inquisition era "converts".
doubtful... there were WAY more than 144,000 killed during the Inquisition... like 48 MILLION more. however, i think that they would be qualified as the souls under the altar imploring God for vengeance in Rev 6:9-10.
 
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t_BuckeyeScott;644887; said:
Neither does the word Bible appear in the Bible...
The greek word harpadzo(sp?) does and when translated into latin is the word we get rapture from.
Any argument that word rapture does not appear in the Bible is just wrong.
The rapture is not supposed to happen, its a concept thought up to give people hope that if they truly believe they wont be around for Gods wrath. Most modern day christans do not fear the Lord, and they should.

The rapture could wind up being the greatest tool of deception, and in turn could easily be where the elect are even decived.
 
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lvbuckeye;645230; said:
doubtful... there were WAY more than 144,000 killed during the Inquisition... like 48 MILLION more. however, i think that they would be qualified as the souls under the altar imploring God for vengeance in Rev 6:9-10.

Okay, I don't even pretend to know anything about this stuff. I just felt like throwing some facially possible crap up against the wall. Although by "converted" I meant Jews who converted publicly but not in their hearts to avoid getting killed not "converted" as code for "killed".
 
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buckeyegrad;645028; said:
I see the 144,000 referring to the time between Christ's death and resurrection and the destruction of the temple. This was a 40 year period, so there was plenty of time for that many Jews to become followers of Christ. After all, 3000 Jews were added to the brotherhood on Pentacost alone. I would back up this assertion that the 144,000 refer to the first century Messianic Jews in that they are called the "first fruits" in Revelation 14:4. If these are Jews that are to come to Christ during the End of Days, wouldn't they be the last fruits?

Then you're ignoring Rev 4:1
Rev 4:1 After these things I looked, and behold, a door was opened in Heaven. And the first voice which I heard was as it were of a trumpet talking with me, saying, Come up here, and I will show you what must occur after these things.

The 144000 come after these things and after John wrote of them no earlier than 2 years before the temple fell.
 
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lvbuckeye;641857; said:
stop. just because i'm an historicist doesn't mean that i believe every event has already occurred. that would be absurd. it should be plainly evident that the Trumpet of the Archangel Michael has not sounded and the Day of the Lord has not yet come... though i think it's getting closer every day.

however, flinging crap against the wall to see what sticks as a manner of interpereting prophecies, especially in light of the fact that many of the prophecies can clearly be seen to have been fulfilled by major historic events of the last two millenium, is willfull ignorance. Daniel was written over 2500 years ago. Revelation was written 2000 years ago. to assume that none of the events have occured yet and that all of them are either 1) current events (which should logically smash the strict preterist view, considering the fact that current event become past events quite quickly), or 2) all in the future, is not feasable (for nearly the same logical conclusion that future events swiftly become events of the past).

while we're on the subject, the 70 weeks prophecy of Daniel was completed with the resurrection and ascension of Christ. in the 70 weeks prophecy, 12 things were to take place:

Remember before I go through all this what Gabriel said in the beginning of Daniel 9:24 "Seventy 'sevens' [c] are decreed for your people and your holy city? Who are Daniel?s people? Israel. Holy City? Jerusalem.
lvbuckeye said:
1) to finish transgression: in Christ's crucifixion, the ultimate sacrifice was made, and transgressions ceased for all who believe. Matthew 23:32-36, Acts 3:14-15
It actually reads ?to finish the transgression?
Unless you look at the Hebrew something is lost in the translation. In the Hebrew there is a definitive article in front of the Hebrew word for transgression. This is not talking about all transgression. Instead the transgression refers to a certain Israel transgression: rejection of her Messiah. This is clearly not solved even today. Although more Jews are coming to a saving knowledge of Jesus Christ than ever before not even close to half of Israel?s population has a saving knowledge of Jesus Christ.
lvbuckeye said:
2) to make an end of sins: in death, Christ made an end to sin. Hebrews 9:26
Israel?s sins?Okay?
lvbuckeye said:
3) to make reconcilliation for iniquity: in his Crucifixion, Christ made reconcilliation for our iniquity. II Corinthians 5:19
Iniquity = willful disobedience. This goes back to #1. This won?t be finished till His 2nd coming.

The first three should be grouped together because of their similarity in dealing with Israel?s sin. Also the first 3 are also all 2 word Hebrew phrases whereas the second three are all 3 word Hebrew phrases. The second 3 all deal with God?s righteousness.
lvbuckeye said:
4) to bring everlasting righteousness: His death and Resurrection brought about everlasting righteousness. II Corinthians 5:21, Romans 3:21-22
Remember ?to your people?: Israel. Israel has not been brought to everlasting righteousness(as evidenced by their transgression) and won?t until the second coming.
5) to seal up the vision and prophecy: Christ's coming sealed up prophecy. Luke 16:16, Acts 3:18[/quote]
Hebrew word for ?to seal? is the same as ?to make an end.? Prophecy would have to be completed.
Luke 16:16"The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it. 17It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the Law.

Proclaimed does not equal completed.

Acts 3:18 But this is how God fulfilled what he had foretold through all the prophets, saying that his Christ[a] would suffer

Um?neither of these says that all the prophecies were fulfilled. In fact you already admitted that all prophecies weren?t fulfilled. So if prophecy hasn?t been fulfilled it hasn?t been sealed and therefore the 70 weeks is not done.
lvbuckeye said:
6) to annoint the Most Holy: Christ was annointed at His Baptism. Luke 3:21-22, 4:18-22
or consencrate the Most Holy
Anoint = consecrate
Christ was anointed at his baptism, but that isn?t the fulfillment of this particular prophecy. The Hebrew words used here for Most Holy is (qodesh qadash?m) or Holy of Holies(look familiar?) is used 39 times in the OT. Never was it used to describe a person. When given an article it always referred to the place where the Ark of the Covenant was stored (the place where the High Priest could only go in once a year on Yom Kippur). When used plural it refers to the Temple or Tabernacle as a whole. If the temple referred to hear was actually already anointed do you think God would allow it to be destroyed? This is a future Temple.

On to the narrative:
lvbuckeye said:
7) Jerusalem to be restored: occured during the time of Ezra and Nehemiah.

8) Streets and walls rebuilt in troubled times: graphically described in Nehemiah.
Absolutely.

This is where I would like a closer look at Daniel 9:25
Dan 9:25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going out of the command to restore and to build Jerusalem, to Messiah the Prince, shall be seven weeks, and sixty-two weeks. The street shall be built again, and the wall, even in times of affliction.

The first 69 weeks end at the Messiah. The decree given in 444 BC when added with the exact nubmer of solar days ends on March 30 33AD: Jesus's triumphal entry into Jerusalem ends the 69th week.
Calculations
lvbuckeye said:
9) the Messiah to be cut off: Matthew 27:35

12) Jerusalem again becomes desolate: instead of being destroyed immediately, Jerusalem was given 40 years to repent, a la Nineveh being given 40 days. 40 years later, Jerusalem was ransacked, and now a mosque sits on the Temple Mount.
Dan 9:26 And after sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself. And the people of the ruler who shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary. And the end of it shall be with the flood, and ruins are determined, until the end shall be war. (Emphasis added)
Dan 9:27 And(then) he shall confirm a covenant with many for one week. And in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the offering to cease, and on a corner of the altar desolating abominations, even until the end. And that which was decreed shall be poured on the desolator.

Here the after only means just that. There is no implied immediately after. But it is 4 days after the end of the 69th week that Jesus is cut off at the cross.
I added the then because that was the intent of the original Hebrew. It means after what happened this is to take place.
lvbuckeye said:
10) the Messiah confirms the convenant: Malachi 3:1, Jeremiah 31:31-33, Matthew 26:28
This is a bad quote. As shown above it is he, but the last he in the text is the ruler of the people who destroyed Jerusalem. Pronouns in Hebrew always refer to the last noun that fits gender and is the same amount. That 'he" is not He the Messiah.
Also isn't the Jesus covenant everlasting while the covenant between "he" is only One week.

lvbuckeye said:
11) He causes sacrifice and oblation to cease: Hebrews 10:7-9
Jesus sure did cause the need for sacrifices and oblation to cease. But the need for and the actual ceasing are two different things. They didn't stop until the Temple was destroyed.
the "he" here is still the same "he"
lvbuckeye said:
the 70th week began with Christ's baptism. 3 1/2 years later, He was cut off, and the 70th week ended with the stoning of Stephen and the end of exlusive ministry in Israel.
As shown earlier using actual daily calculation from the Actual decree to Rebuild Jerusalem you end up at Jesus's entry into Jerusalem not his baptism.
http://www.raptureready.com/featured/ttcol.html
Thomas Ice goes through the 70 weeks of Daniel phrase by phrase and includes notes on original Hebrew language and grammer. There are 12 longer than a page articles on it.
 
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t_BuckeyeScott;645534; said:
Then you're ignoring Rev 4:1
Rev 4:1 After these things I looked, and behold, a door was opened in Heaven. And the first voice which I heard was as it were of a trumpet talking with me, saying, Come up here, and I will show you what must occur after these things.

The 144000 come after these things and after John wrote of them no earlier than 2 years before the temple fell.

Okay, now I see the confusion between us. Why are you assuming all 144,000 have to be saved in an interval of only two years? Why can't someone who was saved 20 years prior to the destruction of the temple be marked with God's seal two years prior to it?

Do not harm the land or the sea or the trees until we put a seal on the foreheads of thee servants of our God (Rev 7:3)

As I read that verse, it simply says that the servants of God will be sealed; not that the sealing makes them servants of God. This sealing has nothing to do with their salvation in Christ, rather it is a seal that will protect them from the approaching judgements.

The preterist interpretation believes that there were 144,000 Messianic Jews that fled Judea before the Romans set seige to Jerusalem and surrounding lands. Now of course, we don't know if this is the true number or not (it is only a possibility), but we do know that the Messianic Jews fled Jerusalem to Pella on the east side of the Jordan River at this time. Most likely escaping because they remembered Jesus' prophesy in Luke 21.

As for these first century converts being the "first fruits" (the term used to describe the 144,000 in Rev 14:4), remember that James called the Messianic Jews by that title in James 1:18.
 
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t_Buckeye_Scott, i have a question for you. you say that the 69th week ends with the triumphant entry, yet Christ is cut off four literal days into the 70th week. is it not sloppy exegeses to suddenly switch from a day-year interperetation to a literal day interperetation mid-prophecy?

in regards to the possible future temple, what do you have to say about the annointing of the Holy Spirit and the fact that I Cor 6:9 says that the body is the temple of the Holy Spirit.

i have a couple more questions as well, but my time is limited right now, so i will address them later.

(i admit that on its face, i have a small problem with a website that is named 'rapture ready.')
 
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lvbuckeye;645621; said:
t_Buckeye_Scott, i have a question for you. you say that the 69th week ends with the triumphant entry, yet Christ is cut off four literal days into the 70th week. is it not sloppy exegeses to suddenly switch from a day-year interperetation to a literal day interperetation mid-prophecy?

in regards to the possible future temple, what do you have to say about the annointing of the Holy Spirit and the fact that I Cor 6:9 says that the body is the temple of the Holy Spirit.

i have a couple more questions as well, but my time is limited right now, so i will address them later.

(i admit that on its face, i have a small problem with a website that is named 'rapture ready.')
I'm saying that Christ was cut 4 literal days later. Not that it was prophesized as 4 days after. I'm a proponet of a gap between the 69th and 70th weeks because as shown everything hasn't been fulfilled. Daniel keeps saying "and then" and "and after" showing some passage of time happens between the events. I'm assuming you know why 490 years is the number God gave Daniel. 490 is also the same amount of years that Israel forgot to give the land its Sabath year. That 490 was spread over the 800 years that Israel had occupied the land until its captivity in Babylon. Therefore Israel's land was owed 70 Sabath years and that's why they were in captivity. The 490 unsabatized(I'm pretty sure I made that word up) years were spread out over the 800 years with plenty of Gaps. Besides that there's no textual evidence that the 70th week comes right after the 69th, but there is textual evidence that the 70th week comes after(not right) cut-off and the destruction of the temple which have textual and other evidence that they weren't part of the 69th or the 70th week.

To the 2nd thing if I'm taking everthing else to mean literaly what it says then why wouldn't I think that Daniel is literally talking about a real Temple. I don't think that takes anything away from I Cor 6:9.

I also would like to point out that a futuristic interpretation of Daniel did not start with the Catholic church during the reformation but is found in the early writings of 2nd century church fathers
Irenaeus (130-200) and his disciple Hippolytus (170-236).

I know the Catholic church thing is fun and all given your enjoyment of conspiracy theories... its just not true.

Maybe instead of evaluating the name of the site you should evaluate their claims against the Bible.
 
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